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Home Discussion Forum General Discussion Use of "Arabic" vs "Arab"

 

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Use of "Arabic" vs "Arab"
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UserPost

10:07PM
Feb-14-10


ColleenK

Eden Prairie, MN

New Member

posts 1
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I have been told that the word "Arabic" should pertain only to the language or literature (e.g., "He spoke Arabic") while "Arab" should pertain to a person or country (e.g., "Egypt is an Arab country"). In common usage, however, it appears these words are often used interchangeably (e.g., "an Arabic woman"). Are there some usage rules about these two words or is it merely a matter of personal preference?

11:29AM
Feb-22-10


torpeau

Left coast of FL

Member

posts 40
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I'd think Arab would be the noun for the person and Arabic would be the adjective. Arabic would also be the noun for the language.

I lost a bet when I said Egyptians were Arabs. The Arabs arrived in Egypt in 730 AD, and before that they had been a mixture of Persians, Greeks, Romans and various other groups — as explained to me by an Egyptian. Egypt is an Arab-speaking country.

9:15PM
Mar-12-10


crestmere

Member

posts 7
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Arabic can also be an adjective referred to the language.

We might need to get Grant and Martha to make a ruling on this.

10:34PM
Mar-12-10


EmmettRedd

Member

posts 195
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What about "arabica" or "Arabica"? It is applied to coffee beans/plants and several other things.

Emmett

2:23AM
Mar-13-10


Ron Draney

Member

posts 222
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And then you've got "gum arabic" and "Arabian horses".

10:39PM
Mar-14-10


johng423

Member

posts 90
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Post edited 10:39PM – Mar-14-10 by johng423

Not trying to stir up any more trouble in that region, but…
I once asked, "What's the difference between an Israeli and an Israelite?"
One wag told me, "One-third less calories."
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